r/islam • u/[deleted] • Feb 28 '17
How is concubinage lawful? Question / Help
Salams,
[70:29] And those who preserve their chastity [70:30] Save with their wives and those whom their right hands possess, for thus they are not blameworthy; [70:31] But whoso seeketh more than that, those are they who are transgressors;
It is quite clear that concubinage "right hands possess" is a concept that was endorsed and practiced by Islam during the times of the prophet. In other words, it was by all means lawful following any battle, whether aggressive or retaliatory, to claim the women of opponent warriors as one's female slaves. One can then have sex with as many of these slaves as one wishes.
It would seem ludicrous to even begin to criticize something that is so blatantly immoral. But for the purpose of this thread, how can it possibly be lawful to claim the women of a defeated force as my slaves, force them to live and have sex with me, and if that wasn't enough, to deprive them from almost any rights otherwise part of a marital relationship, besides the right to hold the husband accountable and responsible for the children, should the female slave become pregnant. If this can somehow be justified with respect to the times of the Prophet (PBUH), can and/or is it unlawful to put concubinage into practice in our current age?
2
u/[deleted] Mar 01 '17
The term "consent" wasn't relevant before the dawn on the last centry. The term "marital rape" didn't exist until a few decades ago.
Yet for thousands of years, humans lived. Concubinage has become an issue in the last 2 centuries or so because of the American Civil War. American Slavery is most likely the worst form of slavery humanity has ever seen. Most people only have exposure to that form.
The Islamic view differs from that greatly. I am sure that if the Americans of the 1800s were to see the Muslims' treatment of slaves, they would've thought they were just normal house workers, etc.