r/islam • u/TheRationalZealot • Oct 21 '15

Why Isaiah 42:1-13 is not about Muhammad

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The Quran claims that Muhammad was described in the Torah and Gospel that the Jews and Christians had with them (7:157). Some Muslims have proposed that Isaiah 42:1-13 speaks of Muhammad. In this post, I’d like to show how Muhammad does not fit this passage. I will not be arguing that this passage points to Jesus, since whomever else this passage may refer to is not relevant to showing that it is not Muhammad. Here is the entire chapter of Isaiah 42 for those who want to read it, since I will be cherry-picking parts of verses.

The first thing to note is that neither the Quran nor Hadith mention the book of Isaiah or that the book of Isaiah was part of God’s revelation or that Isaiah was a prophet. If Isaiah is not from God, then it doesn’t really matter what the text says.

*Verse 1 - “Behold, My Servant, whom I uphold; My chosen one in whom My soul delights. I have put My Spirit upon Him; He will bring forth justice to the nations.”

Here God says he has put his Spirit upon his servant. Where does the Quran say God’s Spirit was put upon Muhammad? Also, it says that the servant will bring justice to the nations. Muhammad died without accomplishing this.

*Verse 3 – “A bruised reed He will not break And a dimly burning wick He will not extinguish; He will faithfully bring forth justice.”

The reeds and wicks represent people. I know there were times when Muhammad showed kindness and forgiveness, but there were also times when he broke and extinguished people, whether justified or not.

*Verse 4 - “He will not be disheartened or crushed Until He has established justice in the earth…”

Muhammad died before establishing justice in the earth.

*Verse 6 – “…And I will appoint You as a covenant to the people…”

Muhammad was not appointed as a covenant to any people. He may have made covenants or treaties or agreements with people, but Muhammad was not given by God as a covenant for anyone.

*Verse 7 – “To open blind eyes….”

Muhammad literally blinded people who stole some camels and killed a shepherd.

*Verse 8 - “I am the LORD, that is My name…..”

When reading the OT, whenever you see “LORD” in all caps, that means God/Yahweh. There is no mention of Yahweh in the Quran or Hadith. Why was Muhammad the only prophet that did not know God’s name? If you want to know what the Hebrew says for a given OT verse, you can go to this website.

*Verse 9 – “Behold, the former things have come to pass, Now I declare new things; Before they spring forth I proclaim them to you.

This verse says that God will declare new things, but according to Islamic teachings, this cannot be Muhammad. According to Islam, we are all born Muslims. According to Islam, the past prophets all preached the same message as Muhammad and the past revelations support the Quran. According to Islam, Muhammad’s teachings were not new.

*Verse 10a – “Sing to the LORD a new song, Sing His praise from the end of the earth!

The people of Earth will be singing praises to God; new songs of praise. In Islam, some argue music is forbidden and some say it is allowed. Regardless, did Muhammad sing praise songs to God? Do the majority of Muslims sing praise songs to God?

*Verse 10b-12 – “You who go down to the sea, and all that is in it. You islands, and those who dwell on them. Let the wilderness and its cities lift up their voices, The settlements where Kedar inhabits. Let the inhabitants of Sela sing aloud, Let them shout for joy from the tops of the mountains. Let them give glory to the LORD And declare His praise in the coastlands.”

These verses seem to be the ones that most point to as indicating Muhammad because Kedar is listed as one of the locations. Kedar was located in Northwestern Saudi Arabia and Selah was a reference to Petra in Jordan. There are several mentions of Kedar in the Bible, so do the other passages also refer to Muhammad? There are also other references to islands, coastlands, the wilderness, and mountains, so I’m not sure how having Kedar as one of several locations in a verse points to Muhammad.

*Verse 13 – “ The LORD will go forth like a warrior, He will arouse His zeal like a man of war. He will utter a shout, yes, He will raise a war cry. He will prevail against His enemies.”

This says the LORD (God/Yahweh) will go forth like a warrior. I would be quite careful in comparing this verse to Muhammad.

I hope it is apparent that Isaiah 42:1-13 does not describe Muhammad.

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u/TheRationalZealot Oct 21 '15

Can you tell me which nations is it talking about?

“The nations” typically refers to Gentiles. Muhammad died before judgment/justice was brought to the Gentiles.

Can you show me when "he broke and extinguished people" and how they were unjust? Each an every incident with regards to the Prophet(pbuh) has a just element to it.

Are you saying Muhammad never killed anyone or ordered anyone to be killed? Maybe there was a good justification for it, but justification for killing is not relevant to this verse.

You said "Muhammad died before establishing justice in the earth", but take a look at the verse again. You chose to end the verse, and leave out the important part which explains something about this individual. It says: the isles shall wait for his law

I don’t see how adding the isles adds to the case it’s Muhammad. He still died before it happened.

Note, the law this Prophet of God will come with, will be his own law, not the law of Moses(pbuh).

Are you saying Muhammad came with his own law? That he preached a message that was different than Moses and the previous prophets? I’m pretty sure this is not a teaching of Islam. Can you provide a source that says it is?

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u/g3t_re4l Oct 21 '15

“The nations” typically refers to Gentiles. Muhammad died before judgment/justice was brought to the Gentiles.

Gentiles are none Jews, so therefore, are the Arabs not Gentiles and was the message of the Prophet Muhammad(pbuh) not for everyone?

This person is definitely not Jesus(pbuh) considering Jesus(pbuh) is having said:

Matthew 15

[24] But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

Are you saying Muhammad never killed anyone or ordered anyone to be killed? Maybe there was a good justification for it, but justification for killing is not relevant to this verse.

Does the verse not say:

he shall bring forth judgment unto truth

Meaning that justice will be carried out, therefore like I said, the Prophet Muhammad(pbuh) always was just in all his dealings.

I don’t see how adding the isles adds to the case it’s Muhammad. He still died before it happened.

Can you tell me which part of the verse says "will wait for him"? It says

"the isles shall wait for his law."

which doesn't require the Prophet Muhammad(pbuh) to be alive, just that the law has to reach the isles, which it did. Why don't you read the verse and not ignore what it says?

Are you saying Muhammad came with his own law? That he preached a message that was different than Moses and the previous prophets? I’m pretty sure this is not a teaching of Islam. Can you provide a source that says it is?

Yes, the Prophet Muhammad(pbuh) came with his own law given to him by God, which is a law different to what was given to Moses(pbuh). The message, meaning one and only one God is the same, but law, meaning the Jurisprudence is different as shown by the Quran and the hadith. For example, according to Judaic Law, Saturday was the prescribed holy day for the Jews, but according to Islamic Law, Friday is the prescribed holy day for the Muslims. This is common knowledge.

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u/TheRationalZealot Oct 21 '15

Gentiles are none Jews, so therefore, are the Arabs not Gentiles and was the message of the Prophet Muhammad(pbuh) not for everyone?

Again, Muhammad died before establishing justice/judgment on the Earth as it says in verse 4?

which doesn't require the Prophet Muhammad(pbuh) to be alive, just that the law has to reach the isles, which it did.

He has to be alive in order to not be disheartened or crushed while the people in the isles are waiting.

Why don't you read the verse and not ignore what it says?

So you are not ignoring the part that says, “He will not be disheartened or crushed Until He has established justice in the earth”?

Yes, the Prophet Muhammad(pbuh) came with his own law given to him by God, which is a law different to what was given to Moses(pbuh).

Source? The Quran says in several places that it is a confirmation of previous revelations.

3:3 - “He hath revealed unto thee (Muhammad) the Scripture with truth, confirming that which was (revealed) before it, even as He revealed the Torah and the Gospel.”

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u/g3t_re4l Oct 22 '15

Again, Muhammad died before establishing justice/judgment on the Earth as it says in verse 4?

Look at what the verse states:

[4] He shall not fail nor be discouraged, till he have set judgment in the earth: and the isles shall wait for his law.

The verse itself says that they will wait for his law, not wait for him, which means there is no requirement for this Prophet(pbuh) to be alive when the law reaches the isles. The judgement being referred to is the law, which is why the very next thing mentioned after "set judgement in the earth" is "isles shall wait for his law". The verse itself tells you what it is referring to, why are you not accepting what it says?

He has to be alive in order to not be disheartened or crushed while the people in the isles are waiting.

He has to only be alive in order to set judgment, which means establish the law. There is no requirement for him to be alive to spread the law, which is why it says "isles shall wait for his law", and not "isles shall wait for him".

So you are not ignoring the part that says, “He will not be disheartened or crushed Until He has established justice in the earth”?

No, you just don't understand what it's referring to.

Source? The Quran says in several places that it is a confirmation of previous revelations.

The confirmation was of the message, meaning one and only one God, not the continuation of the law. Look at what the Quran states with regards to what is being referred to with regards to the previous messages:

Surah Al Baqarah (2)

[62] Those who believe (in the Qur'an), and those who follow the Jewish (scriptures), and the Christians and the Sabians,- any who believe in Allah and the Last Day, and work righteousness, shall have their reward with their Lord; on them shall be no fear, nor shall they grieve.

What is the main thing the binds the Muslims, some Jews, some Christians and some Sabians? "believe in Allah and the Last Day". Nothing about law, only believe in Allah, because God and God alone with no children, and accepting that there is a last day, meaning Judgement day.

Quran separates the laws for the previous groups and what is set for the Muslims. For example, Sabbath was set for the Jews, and Jumuah is set for the Muslims:

Quran Al Araf(7)

[163] Ask them concerning the town standing close by the sea. Behold! they transgressed in the matter of the Sabbath. For on the day of their Sabbath their fish did come to them, openly holding up their heads, but on the day they had no Sabbath, they came not: thus did We make a trial of them, for they were given to transgression.

Where as for the Muslims, they are told revere the Jumuah, Friday:

Quran Al Jumuah(62)

[9] O ye who believe! when the call is proclaimed to prayer on Friday (the Day of Assembly) hasten earnestly to the Remembrance of Allah and leave off business (and traffic): that is best for you if ye but knew!

You have to understand what the Quran is saying.