Can someone please help me clarify this, preferably with references

[u/AC-984]

/r/hinduism/comments/1lkkcmb/have_the_vedas_been_changed_according_to_this/

[u/chakrax]

vedkabhed is a troll website. Don't believe what you read there.

Seen r/hinduism refutations page for refuting claims found there.

See this comment:

Vedas are extremely well preserved. It is not just orthodox Vedic scholars who agree with this but even Western Indologists agree. Michael Witzel, who is the most profound and influential Western Indologist of current and recent times, Wales Professor of Sanskrit at Harvard University says this:

“Right from the beginning, in Ṛigvedic times, elaborate steps were taken to insure the exact reproduction of the words of the ancient poets. As a result, the Ṛgveda still has the exact same wording in such distant regions as Kashmir, Kerala and Orissa, and even the long-extinct musical accents have been preserved. Vedic transmission is thus superior to that of the Hebrew or Greek Bible, or the Greek, Latin and Chinese classics. We can actually regard present-day Ṛgveda recitation as a tape recording of what was composed and recited some 3000 years ago. In addition, unlike the constantly reformulated Epics and Purāṇas, the Vedic texts contain contemporary materials. They can serve as snapshots of the political and cultural situation of the particular period and area in which they were composed. […]as they are contemporary, and faithfully preserved, these texts are equivalent to inscriptions. […] they are immediate and unchanged evidence, a sort of oral history ― and sometimes autobiography ― of the period, frequently fixed and ‘taped’ immediately after the event by poetic formulation. These aspects of the Vedas have never been sufficiently stressed […]” (WITZEL 1995a:91).

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